[30 pts] Prove that, for x \geq 0, there exists a unique W(x) \geq 0 for which W(x) e^{W(x)} = x. Show that \Omega := W(1) satisfies 0.56 < \Omega < 0.58.
Proof. The function f(w) := w e^w is continuously differentiable on \mathbb R with f(0) = 0, f(w) \geq 0 for all w \geq 0, and f(w) \to \infty as w \to \infty. Therefore, for all x\geq 0 there exists a w_x for which f(0) \leq x < f(w_x). Since f is continous, we may apply the intermediate value theorem to conclude there exists W \in [0, w_x] such that f(W) = x. Moreover, f'(w) = (w + 1)e^w > 0 and so f is strictly increasing on [0,\infty). As a result, if W' < W < W'' then f(W') < x < f(W'') and so W(x) := W is the unique solution to f(W) = x.
Finally, since f(0.56) < 1 < f(0.58) (see Julia code below), we have 0.56 < \Omega < 0.58 (again since f is continuous and strictly increasing).
13 C. Julia [40 pts]
[10 pts] Approximate \pi with \pi_1 := 22/7 and \pi_2 := 355/113 and compute the corresponding absolute and relative errors.
π1=22/7; π2=355/113;println("absolute error between π and π1 = ", abs( π- π1 ))println("relative error between π and π1 = ", abs( π- π1 )/π)println("absolute error between π and π2 = ", abs( π- π2 ))println("relative error between π and π2 = ", abs( π- π2 )/π)
absolute error between π and π1 = 0.0012644892673496777
relative error between π and π1 = 0.0004024994347707008
absolute error between π and π2 = 2.667641894049666e-7
relative error between π and π2 = 8.49136787674061e-8
[30 pts] The quantities \pi_N := 4 \sum_{n=0}^N \frac{(-1)^n}{2n+1} approximate \pi by using the Taylor expansion of \arctan together with the fact that \pi = 4 \arctan(1).
# We need the following packages to plot functionsusingPlotsusingLaTeXStringsNmax =100;Ninter =1:Nmax;# vectors of length Nmaxp =zeros( Nmax ); q =zeros( Nmax );p[1] =4* ( 1-1/3 ) ;q[1] =abs( p[1] -π );for N in2:Nmax p[N] = p[N-1] +4* (-1)^N/(2*N +1); q[N] =abs( p[N] -π );endplot(p, legend=false, xlabel="N", title=L"\pi_N")
Based on the following graph, what is the rate of convergence of this particular approximation to \pi? Why do we use a log-log scale for this graph?
The rate of convergence of this particular approximation is O(N^{-1}): we have \pi = \pi_N + O(N^{-1}). We use a log-log scale so that we can see the algebraic convergence as a straight line.
Remark.
In fact, you can bound the error by the N+1 term in the sequence: